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Part B

b. Assuming m, p, and q are all positive integers, can (mp)(mq)>(mp)q
ever be true? Explain.



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Multiple choice question.
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A)
Yes; it is true if and only if p and q are 1 and m is an integer greater than 1.

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B)
Yes; it is true if and only if m is 1.

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C)
No; if m is 1, then the two expressions are always equal

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D)
No; the exponents of both expressions are always equal

User EinSelbst
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1 Answer

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Answer:

Explanation:

User Holms
by
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