Question

A 27-year-old female presents to the hospital with pain in her left lower leg. The area is swollen, red, and tender to the touch. She has no chronic health issues and is not on any medication other than oral contraceptives. Patient does not use tobacco or consume alcohol. An ultrasound is done, and she is diagnosed with superficial femoropopliteal vein thrombophlebitis due to the oral contraceptives. What is the correct coding and sequencing for these diagnoses?

Answer 1

This question pertains to the medical coding of a diagnosis of superficial femoropopliteal vein thrombophlebitis, likely due to oral contraceptive use. Coding follows the ICD system, prioritizing the main diagnosis followed by codes for etiology or additional factors.

Step-by-step explanation:

The student's question seems to relate to medical coding, particularly the coding for a diagnosis of superficial femoropopliteal vein thrombophlebitis. This condition is typically the result of a blood clot in the superficial veins, often linked to varicose veins where defective valves cause blood pooling. In the given case, it's attributed to oral contraceptive use. The coding for this condition follows the ICD (International Classification of Diseases) system used for billing and epidemiology purposes. Typically, the main diagnosis or the reason for the encounter (superficial femoropopliteal vein thrombophlebitis) would be coded first, followed by additional codes to capture the etiology.

Without specific codes provided in the question, we would generally use a code for superficial thrombophlebitis (which can be located under I80.- in ICD-10-CM), then add a code for complications due to oral contraceptive use (found under Z30.-). However, codes should be verified in the latest coding manual or system used, as coding guidelines can change.