176k views
2 votes
∆ does not have to personally come upon ∏'s land for trespass to exist. Trespass can exist where the ∆ intends to flood the ∏'s land, throw rocks onto it, or chase 3rd persons upon it. True or False

User Acl
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Final answer:

Trespass can exist without the defendant personally entering the plaintiff's land.

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement '∆ does not have to personally come upon ∏'s land for trespass to exist' is true. Trespass can indeed exist even if the defendant (Δ) does not personally enter the plaintiff's (π) land. According to the law of trespass, intentional interference with the possession of another's land can occur in various ways.

One example is flooding the π's land. If the Δ intends to flood the π's land, it can be considered trespass. Another example is throwing rocks onto the π's land. In this case, if the Δ deliberately throws rocks onto the π's land, it can also be considered trespass. Finally, if the Δ chases third persons onto the π's land with an intent to interfere with their use of the land, it can constitute trespass.

Therefore, the statement is true, and trespass can exist without the Δ personally entering the π's land, as long as there is intentional interference with the possession of the land by the Δ.

User Sasidhar Vanga
by
7.8k points