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Suppose that f:Rd→R is measurable, and ϕ:Rd→Rd is a bijection such that ϕ−1 is Lipschitz. Prove that f∘ϕ is measurable.

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Final answer:

The composition f \circ \phi is measurable because f is measurable and \phi^{-1} is Lipschitz, implying that \phi^{-1} is continuous. Thus, the pre-image of any measurable set under f \circ \phi is also measurable.

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that the composition f \circ \phi is measurable, let's begin by establishing what we have:

  • f:Rd\u2192R is a measurable function.
  • \phi:Rd\u2192Rd is a bijection, meaning it is a one-to-one and onto function.
  • The inverse function \phi-1 is Lipschitz, meaning there exists a constant L \u003e 0 such that for all x, y in Rd, the inequality |\phi-1(x) - \phi-1(y)| \u2264 L|x - y| holds.

To show that f \circ \phi is measurable, we need to demonstrate that the pre-image of any open set under f \circ \phi is a measurable subset of Rd. An open set O in R under f has a measurable pre-image since f is measurable. Now consider an open set O under f \circ \phi.

The pre-image of O under f \circ \phi is \phi-1\(f-1\(O)). Because f-1\(O) is measurable and \phi-1\ is Lipschitz, hence continuous, the pre-image of a measurable set under a continuous function is also measurable. Therefore, the composition f \circ \phi satisfies the condition for measurability.

User Chuck Burgess
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