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allround has a 40% share of manufacturer sales of otc cold products, but according to a consumer survey, just 25% share of purchases for colds. the best explanation for this difference is

User Bastien
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Final answer:

The best explanation for the difference between allround's 40% share of manufacturer sales of OTC cold products and a consumer survey's finding of a 25% share of purchases for colds is consumer behavior and preferences.

Step-by-step explanation:

The best explanation for the difference between allround's 40% share of manufacturer sales of OTC cold products and a consumer survey's finding of a 25% share of purchases for colds is consumer behavior and preferences.

There could be several reasons for this difference:

  1. Brand Loyalty: Some consumers may have a preference for other brands and choose to purchase those instead of allround's products, despite its dominant market share.
  2. Price: Other brands may be offering lower prices or discounts, attracting consumers who are price-sensitive and willing to switch brands.
  3. Product Range: Allround's product range may not fully cater to consumer needs or preferences. Other brands may offer a wider variety of products that better suit individual needs.

Overall, the difference between manufacturer sales and consumer purchases can be attributed to factors like brand loyalty, pricing, and product range.

User Persida
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