Final answer:
Part (a) of the question can be proven by showing that f(eG) = eG''. We can use the properties of group isomorphisms to prove that f(a^-1) = (f(a))^-1 in G'' for part (b).
Step-by-step explanation:
Part (a)
To prove that f(e
G
) = e
G''
, we know that f is an isomorphism, so it is bijective. Therefore, there exists an inverse function f
-1
: G'' → G. Since f is a group isomorphism, it preserves the group operation, which means for any a,b ∈ G, f(ab) = f(a)f(b) in G''.
By the definition of the identity element, f(e
G
) = e
G''
implies that f(e
G
)f
-1
(e
G''
) = e
G''
. Since f is bijective, f
-1
(e
G''
) = e
G
. Therefore, we have f(e
G
)e
G
= e
G''
, which implies that f(e
G
) = e
G''
.
Part (b)
To prove that f(a
-1
) = (f(a))
-1
, we use a similar approach.
Once again, f is a group isomorphism, so for any a,b ∈ G, f(ab) = f(a)f(b) in G''.
Let x denote f(a
-1
) and y denote (f(a))
-1
. Then we have x = f(a
-1
) in G'' and y = (f(a))
-1
in G''.
Applying f to both sides of y = (f(a))
-1
, we get f(y) = f((f(a))
-1
) = f(f(a))
-1
in G''.
Since f is bijective, f(f(a)) = a and f is a group isomorphism. Therefore, f(y) = a
-1
in G.
Combining x = f(a
-1
) and f(y) = a
-1
, we have x = a
-1
in G and x = f(a
-1
) = (f(a))
-1
in G''.
Therefore, f(a
-1
) = (f(a))
-1
in G''.