Final answer:
The court is likely to rule in favor of the original owner because the title transfer was via a quitclaim deed, which does not guarantee a clear title and there was no mention of marketability of title in the contract with the speculator. Therefore correct option is C
Step-by-step explanation:
The court is likely to rule for c. the original owner, because the condominium unit was transferred by a quitclaim deed. A quitclaim deed does not warrant the quality of the title, meaning it does not guarantee that the title is free from defects. The quitclaim deed merely transfers whatever interest the giver of the deed may have in the property, without any warranty.
Since the contract for the sale of the unit to the speculator contained no reference to the marketability of the title, the original owner did not breach the contract by transferring the unit with a restrictive covenant. Additionally, the restrictive covenant would have been the responsibility of the speculator to discover before reselling the unit, especially since they agreed to provide the third party with title free from defects.