For randomly distributed balls among N boxes, the correlation
between
and
is 0. This implies no linear relationship between the number of balls in Box 1 and Box N.
The covariance between
and
can be calculated as:
![\[ \text{Cov}(X_1, X_N) = \text{E}(X_1X_N) - \text{E}(X_1)\text{E}(X_N) \]](https://img.qammunity.org/2024/formulas/mathematics/high-school/1z9xps0zkeuf3usxf7uhbe2bob31o3g0ae.png)
Given the probabilities for each ball to land in Box 1 or Box N are both
,
and
follow a binomial distribution with parameters
(number of balls) and \(p = 1/N\) (probability of success for each ball).
Therefore

Now, to find
consider that the expected value of the product of two independent random variables is the product of their individual expected values:

Substituting the values:

Now, plug these values into the covariance formula:

Simplify:

The covariance between
and
is zero, which implies they are uncorrelated.
Given the uncorrelated nature of
and
, the correlation coefficient between them is:
![\[ \text{Corr}(X_1, X_N) = \frac{\text{Cov}(X_1, X_N)}{\sqrt{\text{Var}(X_1) \cdot \text{Var}(X_N)}} \]](https://img.qammunity.org/2024/formulas/mathematics/high-school/dgc3mjyayh4fcrzellu0863wt9y0p1rt59.png)
Since the covariance is zero, the correlation coefficient will be zero as well.
Therefore, the correlation between
and
in this scenario where the balls are distributed uniformly at random among the boxes is zero.