71.8k views
2 votes
Prove that if S is the surface of any sphere of radius 2 , then the surface integral over S of the function f(x,y,z)=cos(πz) is zero.

1 Answer

6 votes

Final answer:

To prove that the surface integral over the surface of any sphere of radius 2 of the function f(x,y,z)=cos(πz) is zero, we can use the divergence theorem.

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that the surface integral over the surface of any sphere of radius 2 of the function f(x,y,z)=cos(πz) is zero, we can use the divergence theorem.

The divergence theorem states that the surface integral of a vector field over a closed surface is equal to the triple integral of the divergence of the vector field over the volume enclosed by the surface.

In our case, we can rewrite the function as f(x,y,z)=0*cos(πz) and note that the partial derivative of cos(πz) with respect to z is 0.

Therefore, the divergence of the vector field is 0. Since the radius of the sphere is fixed at 2, the volume enclosed by the surface is also fixed.

Thus, the triple integral of the divergence of the vector field over the volume is 0.

As a result, the surface integral over the sphere of the function f(x,y,z)=cos(πz) is zero.

User Sylens
by
8.2k points