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A tenant has an estate for years. According to the written one-year lease, the tenancy will expire on May 1st. To obtain possession as of the date, the landlord:

A) must give the tenant 30 days' notice
B) must give the tenant 60 days' notice
C) is not required to give the tenant any notice
D) must give the tenant notice before April 15th

User Carla
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1 Answer

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Final answer:

The landlord is not required to give any notice to vacate to the tenant if the lease has a predetermined end date, as the lease automatically terminates on that date unless local laws or the lease itself specifies otherwise.

Step-by-step explanation:

When a tenant has an estate for years, meaning a lease with a set start and end date, the situation you've described typically requires no notice from the landlord that the lease will expire on the agreed-upon date. The lease will simply end on May 1st as stated in the lease agreement. In this case, the correct answer to your question is that the landlord is not required to give the tenant any notice to vacate by the end date specified in the lease, which is May 1st (option C). This is because the termination of the lease is already defined by the date agreed upon in the lease contract, and hence no further notice is generally required unless specified by local laws or the lease agreement itself. It's important to always check local regulations and the terms of the specific lease, as they can vary and may impose additional requirements.

User Bassem
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