Final answer:
The correct statement is b) P(Ri=k, Rj=h) = 1/N(N-1); for 1<= i ≠j, k≠h<=N.
Step-by-step explanation:
The correct statement is b) P(Ri=k, Rj=h) = 1/N(N-1); for 1≤ i ≠j, k≠h≤N.
To understand why this statement is true, we need to consider the permutations of (1,2,...N). Each permutation is equally likely, so the probability of Ri=k is 1/N for each i and k. The same reasoning applies to the probability of Rj=h. Since i and j are independent, the probability of both statements being true is the product of their individual probabilities, which is 1/N(N-1).
Therefore, statement b) is the correct answer.