71.2k views
1 vote
Is the killing of an unborn child when the offender has a specific intent to kill or to inflict great bodily harm considered the crime of Second Degree Feticide?

1) True
2) False

User Karlee
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

1 vote

Final answer:

The classification of the crime as Second Degree Feticide depends on the specific laws of the jurisdiction in question and the circumstances of the case, including the intent of the offender and the legal definitions applied.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question addresses whether the intentional killing of an unborn child with specific intent to kill or to inflict great bodily harm is considered the crime of Second Degree Feticide. The definition of feticide varies by jurisdiction, but it generally refers to the act of causing the death of a fetus. Often, the specifics of the law, such as intent, play a significant role in determining the degree of the crime. For instance, in some legal systems, the definition of second degree murder or feticide includes killings that are not premeditated but where the offender has the intent to kill or to inflict serious harm. Consequently, the truth of this statement is contingent upon local laws and definitions of feticide. While abortion is subject to intense moral debate, within the legal context, the intent and circumstances surrounding the termination of a pregnancy are critically important in determining whether it constitutes feticide or murder. Legal definitions and rulings like those in Enmund v. Florida and Planned Parenthood v. Casey highlight the importance of intent and viability respectively.

User Rafael Zeffa
by
8.4k points