Final answer:
No, it is not a logical fallacy. According to Newton's first law of motion, an object at rest will stay at rest and an object in motion will continue to move at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force.
Step-by-step explanation:
No, it is not a logical fallacy. According to Newton's first law of motion, also known as the law of inertia, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will continue to move at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force.
This can be observed in everyday life. For example, when you push a book on a table, it eventually comes to a stop because of the force of friction. Without that force, the book would continue moving in the same direction with the same speed. Similarly, when you release a ball rolling on the ground, it slows down and stops due to the force of friction. However, in the absence of friction, the ball would continue rolling indefinitely.
Therefore, the statement that objects in motion tend to stay in motion is a fundamental principle of physics supported by experimental observations and scientific theories. It is not a logical fallacy.