126k views
2 votes
A thick walled hollow sphere has outer radius R. It rolls down an inclined plane without slipping and its speed at the bottom is v. If the inclined plane is frictionless and the sphere slides down without rolling, its speed at the bottom will be 5v/4. What is the radius of gyration of the sphere?

A. R/√2
B. R/2
C. 3R/4
D. √3R/4

1 Answer

4 votes

Final answer:

The radius of gyration k for the hollow sphere is found by equating the kinetic energies for rolling without slipping and sliding without rolling. By considering the energy conservation and the moment of inertia for a hollow sphere, k is determined to be R/√2, which is option A.

Step-by-step explanation:

When the hollow sphere rolls down an inclined plane without slipping, its kinetic energy at the bottom is a combination of translational and rotational kinetic energy. The translational kinetic energy is (1/2)mv^2 and the rotational kinetic energy is (1/2)Iω^2, where I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular velocity. For rolling without slipping, v = ωR. Thus, Iω^2 can be rewritten as Iv^2/R^2. The moment of inertia for a hollow sphere is I = (2/3)mR^2, so substituting I into the kinetic energy equation gives us a total kinetic energy when rolling of (1/2)mv^2 + (1/3)mv^2 = (5/6)mv^2.

If the sphere slides down the same incline without rolling, there is no rotational kinetic energy, so all the potential energy is converted into translational kinetic energy, which would be (1/2)mv'^2 with v' being the new speed at the bottom. Given that v' is 5v/4, we can say that (1/2)m(5v/4)^2 = (1/2)mgh, where h is the height of the incline. Since both scenarios start with the same potential energy, mgh, we can equate the kinetic energies: (5/6)mv^2 = (1/2)m(5v/4)^2.

Solving for v^2, we see that the (5/6) factor corresponds to the kinetic energy when rolling and the (1/2)*(5/4)^2 factor for when slipping, so (5/6) = (1/2)*(5/4)^2, or (5/6) = (25/32). This simplifies to a ratio of v^2/v'^2 = 6/5. The radius of gyration k can then be found from the ratio of the moments of inertia, where for a hollow sphere, it is k^2 = (2/3)R^2. Equating (1/2)m(6/5)v^2 when rolling down to (1/2)mk^2v^2, we have k^2 = (6/5)(2/3)R^2, which simplifies to k = R/√2, or option A.

User MortalMan
by
8.7k points