Question

A contemporary historian has written: "Most property-less white men were enfranchised during the first half of the nineteenth century; then came African Americans; then women; then African Americans again; and finally, even eighteen-year-olds." Which statement best explains the words "then African Americans again"?

A. Then African Americans again" refers to the fact that African Americans were consistently allowed to vote without any interruptions.
B. Then African Americans again" means that African Americans were granted voting rights after women.
C. Then African Americans again" signifies that African Americans were given voting rights after property-less white men.
D. Then African Americans again" suggests that African Americans were allowed to vote only in the 20th century.

Answer 1

The statement 'then African Americans again' means that African Americans were given voting rights after property-less white men.

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement 'then African Americans again' means that African Americans were given voting rights after property-less white men. Initially, property requirements for voting were used by states to deny suffrage to both property-less white men and African American men. However, when states began to abolish property requirements in the 1830s, many states restricted suffrage to white men only, excluding African American men from voting. Therefore, the phrase 'then African Americans again' indicates that African Americans later gained voting rights after property-less white men.