Final answer:
In colonial America, men had to prove they owned land to be eligible to vote. This principle originated from the belief that only property owners had a vested interest in society's decisions. The idea was influenced by property rights concepts and concerns of 'mob rule,' and was prevalent until movements for universal manhood suffrage challenged it.
Step-by-step explanation:
The correct option is A:
In colonial times and during the early years of the United States, men had to prove that they owned land in order to be able to vote. The idea of tying property ownership to the right to vote has its roots in the belief that those who had a stake in society, i.e., property owners, were more invested and therefore better qualified to make decisions affecting the community.
At the time of the American Revolution, the belief that political participation should be reserved for property owners was widely held. This was based on the view that democracy could lead to 'mob rule' and that only the 'elite,' those who owned property or paid taxes, should have the right to vote. Moreover, Locke's concept of property rights played a significant role in this ideology. Locke argued that those who labored for their property had a right to it, and it was the government's duty to protect those rights. This formed an essential part of the colonial leaders' justification for restricting voting rights.
Throughout the colonial period, different colonies established various restrictions on voting, including religious tests, thereby creating a system where political influence was limited to a small segment of the population. This system began to change with the rise of ideas promoting universal manhood suffrage which sought to extend voting rights to all white male adults, irrespective of property ownership.