146k views
1 vote
Is f(x)=1/x uniformly continuous on (0, 1)?

A) Yes
B) No

User Bpeikes
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Final answer:

Yes, the function f(x) = 1/x is uniformly continuous on the interval (0,1).

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, the function f(x) = 1/x is uniformly continuous on the interval (0,1).

A function is uniformly continuous if for any positive real number ε, there exists a positive real number δ such that whenever |x - y| < δ, it implies |f(x) - f(y)| < ε.

In this case, let's choose ε to be a positive real number. We can choose δ to be the minimum of 1/2 and ε/2. Then, whenever |x - y| < δ, we can show that |f(x) - f(y)| < ε.

User Diego Suarez
by
8.0k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories