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Moderately obese 35-year-old female with a history of well-controlled DMII presents with a 4-year history of recurrent abscesses in both axillae interfering with her ability to work. What is the most appropriate management?

A) Topical corticosteroids
B) Weight loss and lifestyle modification
C) Incision and drainage of abscesses
D) Antibiotic therapy

User Kathrine
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Final answer:

The most appropriate management for a 35-year-old female with recurrent axillary abscesses is weight loss and lifestyle modification.

Step-by-step explanation:

The most appropriate management for a moderately obese 35-year-old female with a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes and recurrent abscesses in both axillae is B) Weight loss and lifestyle modification. Obesity is a risk factor for developing recurring abscesses, and weight loss can help reduce the frequency and severity of these abscesses. Additionally, lifestyle modifications such as maintaining good hygiene and avoiding shaving the axillae can also help prevent abscess formation.

User Vernell
by
8.5k points
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