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Would it be unusual for none of them to fail the test? use a cutoff of 0.05 . it be unusual for none of them to fail the test since the probability is

User PatNowak
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Final answer:

If none of the students fail the test, it would not be considered unusual. As the number of students increases, the probability of all students passing the test becomes increasingly likely.

Step-by-step explanation:

In statistics, the probability cutoff of 0.05 is often used as a measure of statistical significance. If none of the students fail the test, it would not be considered unusual. In fact, it would be the expected outcome assuming that the students have been adequately prepared for the test.

To understand why, let's consider a hypothetical scenario. If the probability of a student failing the test is 0.05, then the probability of a student passing the test is 1 - 0.05 = 0.95. The probability of all students passing the test would be (0.95)^n, where n is the number of students. As the number of students increases, the probability of all students passing the test becomes increasingly likely.

For example, if there are 25 students and each has a 0.05 probability of failing the test, the probability of all 25 students passing the test is (0.95)^25 ≈ 0.39. This means that it would be expected for approximately 39% of the time for all 25 students to pass the test.

User Daniel Asher
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