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Where a valid "averaging hours" agreement is in place, an employee who works 48 hours in one week and 40 hours in the next is entitled to receive overtime premium pay for: _______

A)
0 hours.
B)
4 hours.
C)
8 hours.
D)
none of the above.

User Gyula
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2 Answers

6 votes
I think it would be 8 hours
User Shadowland
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1 vote

Final answer:

An employee with a valid averaging hours agreement working 48 hours one week and 40 the next, receives overtime pay for 0 hours under the agreement that allows averaging over two weeks without exceeding the 40-hour workweek average.

Step-by-step explanation:

When an employee has a valid "averaging hours" agreement, and that employee works 48 hours in one week and 40 hours in the next, they would be entitled to receive overtime premium pay for 0 hours (Answer A). This scenario is typically covered by labor laws which stipulate that overtime is due when an employee works more than 40 hours in a workweek. However, an averaging hours agreement can allow work hours to be averaged over a set period, such as two weeks. In this case, if the agreement specifies that the average weekly hours over two weeks should not exceed 40, then no overtime is due because the average of 48 hours and 40 hours is exactly 44 hours per week, still under the applicable threshold for overtime.

User AndyHu
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