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Let's assume that I have an ideal conductor(straight wire(, as we know that potential at any point on the ideal conductor is the same, if i place that ideal conductor in a region where magnetic field is increasing, so according to faradays law a potential difference will exist across the ends of the conductor, but how is that possible if we know that for an ideal conductor potential at any point is the same

Options:
A) Faraday's law does not apply to ideal conductors.
B) The potential difference exists due to the resistance within the conductor.
C) Faraday's law induces an electric field within the conductor, causing the potential difference.
D) Ideal conductors violate Faraday's law under changing magnetic fields.

1 Answer

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Final answer:

The potential difference across the ends of an ideal conductor placed in a region where the magnetic field is increasing is due to the resistance within the conductor.

Step-by-step explanation:

The potential difference exists due to the resistance within the conductor. When a conductor is placed in a region where the magnetic field is increasing, according to Faraday's law of induction, a potential difference is induced across the ends of the conductor. This potential difference is caused by the changing magnetic flux through the conductor.

However, in an ideal conductor, the potential at any point is the same, so the induced potential difference does not exist within the conductor itself. Instead, it exists across the ends of the conductor, due to the resistance within the conductor.

User Billkamm
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