Question

Person A is talking to person B and uses a phrase that B is offended by. Person A is unapologetic because they personally don't take offense to that phrase and feel taking offense to it is the offended person's problem. Who is right in this case? And what if B is the only person in the world that is offended by it? Do they have to prove their feelings? If no and their feelings are valid without needing to be explained, wouldn't that start a race to the bottom and allow bad actors to sabotage language? What if someone claims to take offense to 'Hi, how are you'?

Answer 1

In this case, both person A and person B have valid perspectives, but it is important to consider the feelings and perspectives of others. It is not necessary for person B to prove their feelings, as feelings are subjective and valid.

Step-by-step explanation:

In this case, there is a conflict between the right to free expression and the right to not be offended. While person A may not personally take offense to a certain phrase, it is important to consider the feelings and perspectives of others. It is not necessary for person B to prove their feelings, as feelings are subjective and valid.

However, this does not mean that this situation would lead to a race to the bottom or allow bad actors to sabotage language. It is important for individuals to be mindful of how their words may impact others and to engage in respectful and open dialogue.

Cultural appropriation and the denial of injury show that even if the person using certain language doesn't see harm, it doesn't mean offense hasn't occurred. Ultimately, fostering a consensual culture that respects differences is paramount.