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If we have a ball on a ramp with angle θand therefore a component of gravity acting along the ramp equal to mgsin(θ)and a friction force that is exactly equivalent to the force due to gravity, according to Newton's 2nd law, the ball should not move. But due to the applied torque the ball should spin. So will the ball spin in place?

User Flutroid
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Final answer:

Even with a frictional force balancing the gravitational component and preventing translational motion, an applied torque could still cause a ball on a ramp to spin in place if it is large enough to overcome any static frictional resistance to rotation.

Step-by-step explanation:

If we have a ball on a ramp with angle θ which results in a gravitational component acting along the ramp equal to mgsin(θ), and a friction force that is exactly equivalent to this force, the ball should remain static according to Newton's second law; there should be no net translational motion as the forces are balanced.

However, if there's a torque applied, the situation for rotational motion differs. We must consider that torque is the rotational analog of force, implying that a torque could cause the ball to spin even without it rolling down the ramp, provided there is no rotational static friction opposing the torque.

The angular acceleration is given by α = τ/I, where τ is the torque and I is the moment of inertia. If the torque is sufficient to overcome static frictional forces, the ball will spin in place.

User Gmsi
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