33.3k views
1 vote
Any function has its own inverse. true or false?​

User Ytoledano
by
7.2k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation: Not every function has an inverse. For a function to have an inverse, it must be one-to-one (injective), meaning that each element in the domain maps to a unique element in the codomain. Additionally, it should be onto (surjective), meaning that every element in the codomain is covered by the function.

User TheFuzz
by
7.6k points