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How did a wealth gap occur
during urbanization? Was this
avoidable? Why or why not?

User Fjxx
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1 Answer

8 votes

Answer:

Notably, the recent rise of wealth inequality is almost entirely due to the rise of the share of wealth held by the top 0.1% – which went from 7% in 1979 to 22% in 2012. ... Third, the increased concentration of wealth at the top is driven by diversified wealth accumulation and surging (top) incomes.

Step-by-step explanation:

User Shriyansh Gautam
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2.9k points