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according to the author, question 2 options: 1) the interpretation of a work of art is objective. 2) a work of art may fall into more than one theme. 3) it doesn't make sense to compare art from different cultures. 4) all of these are the case: the interpretation of art is objective; a work of art may fall into more than one theme; and it doesn't make sense to compare art from different cultures.

User Sepehr Nazari
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1 Answer

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Final answer:

According to the provided texts, the most accurate option is that a work of art may fall into more than one theme, due to the inherent subjectivity in art interpretation and the notion of personal and societal subjective perspectives that can influence understanding.

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the reference information provided, option 2) is the most accurate: a work of art may fall into more than one theme. The references stress that interpretation is not strictly objective due to the inherent subjectivity of art analysis and the influences of contemporary societal developments on art historians' perspectives, such as feminism and globalism. Moreover, the idea that art carries an ambiguity that invites personal interpretation suggests that a work can indeed reflect multiple themes.

The reference materials denounce the idea of the 'intentional fallacy', highlighting that a piece can take on its own life beyond the artist's original intentions, thereby fostering multiple interpretations. Finally, the point is made that art interpreters must be open to the possibility that contrary readings can coexist and provide a richer understanding of a work.

User Suprita Shankar
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