Question

Mutant forms of tumor-suppressor genes typically behave in a recessive manner. However, a recent study of patients with multiple myeloma revealed that approximately 10% of these patients have one normal p53 gene and one mutant p53 gene. If it is the mutant p53 gene that is responsible for this group's cancer, which of the following statements would most likely be TRUE? A. The mutant p53 gene is having epigenetic effects in these patients. these patients but rather an oncogene repair pathways. these patients. B. The p53 gene is not a tumor-suppressor gene in O C. The mutant p53 gene most likely is involved in DNA- D. The mutant p53 gene is being overexpressed in E. The p53 gene can act in a haploinsufficient manner

Answer 1

The mutant p53 gene most likely acts in a haploinsufficient manner, meaning that both copies of the gene need to be functional for its tumor-suppressor role to be effective.

Step-by-step explanation:

The most likely true statement in this scenario is that the p53 gene can act in a haploinsufficient manner.

Normally, one functional copy of the p53 gene is enough to prevent cancer. However, in this group of patients with multiple myeloma, having one normal p53 gene and one mutant p53 gene suggests that the mutant p53 gene alone is not sufficient to cause cancer. This indicates that the p53 gene can act in a haploinsufficient manner, meaning that both copies of the gene need to be functional for its tumor-suppressor role to be effective.

This finding is consistent with the recessive behavior typically observed in mutant forms of tumor-suppressor genes.