Question

Which of the following statements about property restrictions on the right to vote in the United States is true?

a) Property ownership was a requirement for voting rights
b) Property ownership never impacted voting rights
c) Property ownership only affected state elections
d) Property ownership was an issue in certain colonial areas

Answer 1

In colonial America, property ownership and tax payment requirements were imposed for voting. Before the 1820s, property qualifications for voting were common, but they were subsequently abolished in many states, leading to the expansion of suffrage.

Step-by-step explanation:

In colonial America, property ownership and tax payment requirements were imposed for voting rights. Each of the thirteen colonies had property ownership and/or tax requirements in order to vote. Some colonies also had additional restrictions on voting, such as religious tests. For example, Catholics and Jews were barred from voting in certain colonies.

Before the 1820s, many state constitutions in the United States had property qualifications for voting. However, as Federalist ideals declined, the idea that property ownership indicated virtue was questioned, leading to the push for universal manhood suffrage, or voting rights for all White male adults.

In the early nineteenth century, property restrictions on voting and officeholding were abolished in many states, leading to the expansion of suffrage. By the 1860s, most states no longer limited suffrage to taxpayers or imposed property qualifications. Some states also allowed immigrants who intended to become citizens to vote.