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Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A couple has a color-blind son and a daughter with normal vision. Which of the following conditions is a likely explanation?

A. The father was heterozygous for colorblindness.
B. The father was colorblind.
C. The mother was colorblind.
D. The mother was heterozygous for colorblindness.
E. Two of the above.

User Sybear
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1 Answer

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Final answer:

The mother was likely heterozygous for colorblindness, as the couple has a color-blind son who inherited the gene from her, and an unaffected daughter, while the father had normal color vision.

Step-by-step explanation:

Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive trait, meaning it is carried on the X chromosome and a male only needs one copy of the mutant gene to be affected. Females need two copies of the mutant gene to express the trait because they have two X chromosomes.

A color-blind son must have received the X chromosome with the colorblindness gene from his mother, while the unaffected daughter must have received a normal X from her mother and a normal Y from her father. This means that the mother must be a carrier of the colorblindness gene (i.e., heterozygous for colorblindness), and the father must have normal color vision since he cannot pass an X chromosome to his son. Therefore, the likely explanation is that the mother was heterozygous for colorblindness.

The son received the X chromosome carrying the colorblind gene from his mother and a Y chromosome from his father, resulting in colorblindness. The daughter received a normal X chromosome from her mother and she must receive a normal X from her father, because he does not have a condition to pass on.

The last statement in the student's question, that males can be carriers of red-green color blindness as it is autosomal recessive, is incorrect. Color blindness is not autosomal, but X-linked recessive; therefore, males cannot be carriers—they are either affected or not, based on the X chromosome they inherit from their mother.

User J Ha
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