Correct answer is b) False. The inequality does not hold for all x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0 and for conjugate exponents p and q.
Consider the case where x = 1 and y = 1. The inequality becomes:
1 ≤ {1/p + 1/q}
This inequality does not hold for all values of p and q. For example, if p = 1 and q = 1, then the left-hand side of the inequality is 1 and the right-hand side is 2, which is not less than 1.
Therefore, the inequality does not hold for all x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0 and for conjugate exponents p and q. Thus, the answer is (b) False.