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{\displaystyle \lim _{n\to \infty }{\frac {1}{n}}=0}{\displaystyle \lim _{n\to \infty }{\frac {1}{n}}=0}

User Anku Singh
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1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

The limit is true and it exists

Explanation:

Given the limit
{\displaystyle \lim _(n\to \infty ){\frac {1}{n}}=0}

To show that the given limit is true, we will simply replace n with โˆž

On substituting


{\displaystyle \lim _(n\to \infty ){\frac {1}{n}}=0}\\ = (1)/(\infty)\\= 0\\

Hence the given limit is true and it exists since we got a finite value. Note that for any constant a, lim n ->โˆž a/n = 0

User Marcz
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