39.5k views
4 votes
Using Maclaurin series, determine to exactly what value the series converges.

∑ from n=0 to [infinity] (-1)ⁿ * ((4π)²ⁿ / (2ⁿ)!)

User Pbraeutigm
by
8.3k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Final answer:

The series converges to the value of the cosine of 4π, which is equivalent to cos(0), and thus the series converges to exactly 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question involves determining the convergent value of a series represented by a Maclaurin series. The series in question is ∑ from n=0 to ∞ (-1)ⁿ * ((4π)²ⁿ / (2ⁿ)!). This series is actually the expansion for the cosine function, given by the Maclaurin series cos(x) = ∑ from n=0 to ∞ (-1)ⁿ * (x²ⁿ / (2n)!). In our case, x is equal to 4π, and so the series converges to cos(4π). Since the cosine function has a period of 2π, cos(4π) is equivalent to cos(0), which is exactly 1.

User Dinesh Maurya
by
8.3k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories