Question

A 31-year-old G3P0 presents with amenorrhea for six months. She is otherwise in good health and is not taking any medications. She had a miscarriage seven months ago, which was complicated by an infection and required antibiotics and a dilation and curettage procedure. Her examination is normal. Her laboratory results show a Beta-hCG <5 mIU/mL, and normal TSH and prolactin levels. What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's amenorrhea?

A. Chronic endometritis
B. Recurrent miscarriages
C. Hypothalamic-pituitary amenorrhea
D. Asherman's syndrome
E. Sheehan's syndrome

Answer 1

The most likely underlying cause of this patient's amenorrhea is Hypothalamic-pituitary amenorrhea.

Step-by-step explanation:

The most likely underlying cause of this patient's amenorrhea is Hypothalamic-pituitary amenorrhea. Hypothalamic-pituitary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods due to a disruption in the normal functioning of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, which regulate the reproductive hormones. This disruption can be caused by factors such as stress, excessive exercise, weight loss, or psychological conditions. In this patient's case, the previous miscarriage and infection, along with the resulting hormonal changes, may have disrupted the normal functioning of the hypothalamus-pituitary axis and led to the amenorrhea.