Question

A 35-year-old G3P2 woman is at 18 weeks gestation. Her obstetrical history is significant for two previous low transverse Cesarean deliveries. Her first one was performed secondary to arrest of dilation in the active phase at 7cm. She delivered a healthy 3500-gram infant. Her second Cesarean delivery was an elective repeat. She delivered a healthy 3400-gram infant. The patient strongly desires to attempt a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean). Which of the following statements is correct?

1) The likelihood of a uterine rupture after two Cesarean sections is approximately 10%
2) The likelihood of a successful VBAC is lower in patients with two previous Cesarean deliveries than in women with one prior Cesarean delivery
3) The likelihood of a successful VBAC is not affected by the indication of the previous Cesarean delivery
4) The likelihood of a successful VBAC after two Cesarean sections is approximately 30%
5) She can safely undergo a prostaglandin induction of labor at term

Answer 1

The likelihood of a successful VBAC is lower in patients with two previous Cesarean deliveries than in women with one prior Cesarean delivery.

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct statement regarding a 35-year-old G3P2 woman with two previous low transverse Cesarean deliveries who strongly desires to attempt a VBAC is that the likelihood of a successful VBAC is lower in patients with two previous Cesarean deliveries than in women with one prior Cesarean delivery. This is because the risk of uterine rupture increases with each successive Cesarean section. The likelihood of a uterine rupture after two Cesarean sections is approximately 10%, making it a significant concern when considering a VBAC. The indication of the previous Cesarean delivery does not affect the likelihood of a successful VBAC.