16.6k views
5 votes
The 1 percent value at risk (VAR) of an investment is defined as the value v such that there is a 1% chance that the investment will lose more than v. Let X be a random variable representing the profit from the investment. The VAR of this investment is the value of v such that P(−X>v)=0.01. If X∼N(μ,σ²), approximate the VAR for this investment.

1 Answer

6 votes

Final answer:

To approximate the VAR for an investment with a normal distribution, we need to calculate the z-score corresponding to the desired probability. The VAR can be calculated using the formula VAR = mean - z * standard deviation.

Step-by-step explanation:

To approximate the VAR for an investment with a normal distribution, we need to calculate the z-score corresponding to the desired probability. In this case, the probability is 0.01, so the z-score is -2.33 (obtained from a standard normal distribution table). The VAR can be calculated using the formula VAR = mean - z * standard deviation. Given that X follows a normal distribution with mean μ and variance σ², the VAR is v = μ - z * σ.

Let's say the profit from the investment is modeled by a normal distribution X ~ N(μ, σ²). In order to find the VAR, we need to know the values of μ and σ. Once we have these values, we can plug them into the formula to calculate the VAR. The VAR represents the value below which there is a 1% chance of the investment losing more.

User CTABUYO
by
8.0k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories