Question

2 cups=1 pint. Let’s break this down what fraction of a cup equal 1 pint

Answer 1

One pint is equivalent to 2 cups, so the fraction of a cup that equals 1 pint is 2/1, which simplifies to 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find what fraction of a cup equals 1 pint, first establish the relationship between cups and pints. We know that 2 cups is equivalent to 1 pint.

So, if you have 1 pint, which is equal to 2 cups, and you want to express that single pint in terms of cups as a fraction, you essentially need the fraction that would multiply by 2 cups to give you 1 pint.

Since 2 cups equal 1 pint, the fraction of a cup that equals 1 pint is simply 2/1, which simplifies to 2.

Therefore, it takes 2 cups to make 1 pint.