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You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21 y/o female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high flow oxygen, what should you do?

1) Administer a D50 bolus
2) Administer glucagon
3) Administer 0.9% normal saline
4) Administer insulin

User Matiit
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1 Answer

7 votes

Final answer:

The most appropriate intervention in this scenario would be to administer a D50 bolus.

Step-by-step explanation:

The main priority in this situation is to address the patient's confusion, disorientation, and thirst. Since the patient has not taken her anticonvulsant medication and has diabetes, it is important to suspect hypoglycemia as the cause of her symptoms. Administering a D50 bolus (1) would be the most appropriate intervention in this scenario as it provides a rapid source of glucose to increase the blood sugar levels and alleviate the hypoglycemic symptoms.

User Patrick Chan
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