Register

Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10

Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10
83.8k views
3 votes
Is 32:8 is equivalent to 40:10

User Jadik
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Yes they are equivalent. 10 divided by 8 is 1.25. 40/32 is 1.25. Therefor they are equivelent.

User Dan Erez
by
8.1k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
Link Copied!