Question

Jake needs 8 cups of milk to make a chocolate shake for his family. His measuring device measures liquids by the pint. If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, how many pints should Jake measure?

A) 4 pints
B) 6 pints
C) 10 pints
D) 16 pints

Answer 1

Jake should measure 4 pints of milk, as 1 pint equals 2 cups, and he needs 8 cups for his chocolate shake.

Step-by-step explanation:

Jake needs to convert cups to pints to determine how many pints of milk to use for his chocolate shake. Since 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, he can use unit equivalence to do the conversion. To find out how many pints equal 8 cups, we divide the number of cups by the number of cups in a pint:

1. Identify the conversion factor, which is 1 pint = 2 cups.
2. Since Jake needs 8 cups, divide 8 cups by the number of cups in a pint (2 cups/pint): 8 cups ÷ 2 cups/pint = 4 pints.

Therefore, Jake should measure 4 pints of milk to get the 8 cups needed for his shake.