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Which statement best explains whether △pqr is congruent to △xyz? responses

a) △pqr is congruent to △xyz because △pqr can be mapped to △xyz by a reflection across the y-axis followed by a reflection across the x-axis. triangle p q r, is congruent to , triangle x y z, because , triangle p q r, can be mapped to , triangle x y z, by a reflection across the , y, -axis followed by a reflection across the , x, -axis.
b) △pqr​ is congruent to △xyz because △pqr can be mapped to △xyz by a rotation of 180° about the origin. triangle p q r, ​ , is congruent to , triangle x y z, because , triangle p q r, can be mapped to , triangle x y z, by a rotation of 180° about the origin.
c) △pqr is not congruent to △xyz because there is no sequence of rigid motions that maps △pqr to △xyz. triangle p q r, is not congruent to , triangle x y z, because there is no sequence of rigid motions that maps , triangle p q r, to , triangle x y z, .

1 Answer

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Final answer:

The statement (c) △pqr is not congruent to △xyz because there is no sequence of rigid motions that maps △pqr to △xyz. is the best explanation for whether △pqr is congruent to △xyz.

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement (c) △pqr is not congruent to △xyz because there is no sequence of rigid motions that maps △pqr to △xyz. is the best explanation for whether △pqr is congruent to △xyz. In order for two triangles to be congruent, their corresponding sides and angles must be equal. If there is no sequence of rigid motions that can map one triangle onto the other, then the triangles cannot be congruent.

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