Final answer:
Aurangzeb was not a ruler of the Safavid Empire but the Mughal Empire. The Safavid Empire, contemporaneous with the earlier Mughal rulers, was a significant dynasty in Iran, facing decline during Aurangzeb's era in India, mainly due to internal and external challenges.
Step-by-step explanation:
The Safavid Empire under Aurangzeb
The question seems to contain a mistake, as Aurangzeb was a ruler of the Mughal Empire, not the Safavid Empire. However, I can provide information on the Safavid Empire around the time Aurangzeb ruled the Mughal Empire (1658–1707). The Safavid Empire, located east of the Ottoman Empire and mainly in Iran, was a significant Muslim dynasty. It was established in 1501 by Shah Ismail I and experienced territorial expansion and cultural flourishing. Under Shah Abbas the Great (1587-1629), a contemporary to an earlier Mughal emperor, it reached its zenith. The Safavid Empire is noted for establishing Shi'ism as the state religion in a predominantly Sunni region, fostering a deeply rooted divide that persists today.
By the time of Aurangzeb's rule in India, the Safavid Empire had begun to confront challenges like internal strife, economic decline, and external pressures from the Ottoman Empire and the emerging Afghan forces. The empire under Shah Sultan Husayn witnessed fiscal weakening and increasing religious intolerance, leading to its gradual decline post-1722. Despite its downfall, the lasting legacies of the Safavid rule include a strong Shia identity in Iran and a rich Persian culture showcased in literature, philosophy, and architecture.