Question

The caregiver of a 1-year-old son calls the nurse, upset that his wife has just told him that their son is being given a hormone. His wife says that the pediatrician called it human chorionic gonadotropic hormone but that is all she understood. The nurse most accurately clarifies the caregiver's question by making which of the following statements regarding the son's treatment?

1) Without the hormone your son will have fluid that will collect in his scrotum.
2) Your child's testes have not dropped, so the hormone is being administered to avoid causing degeneration until they do.
3) The doctor is hoping that the hormone will cause your son's undropped testes to move into their proper place.
4) Without the treatment your child's gonads will not reach normal size.

Answer 1

The most accurate explanation for the administration of human chorionic gonadotropin to the 1-year-old is to help his undescended testes move into the scrotum, facilitating their proper development.

Step-by-step explanation:

The caregiver's question regarding their 1-year-old son being given human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) can be clarified by explaining that the hormone is being administered because the child's testes have not descended into the scrotum, a condition known as cryptorchidism.

The most accurate statement is that the doctor is hoping that the hormone will cause your son's undropped testes to move into their proper place (option 3). This treatment is intended to stimulate the descent of the testes, which is essential for their normal functioning and development.