112k views
3 votes
suppose i place 2 red balls, 3 green balls, and 4 blue balls into a hat, and draw two balls without replacement. what is the probability they are both blue?

2 Answers

6 votes

Final Answer:

The probability of drawing two blue balls without replacement is \( \frac{4}{9} \times \frac{3}{8} = \frac{1}{6} \).

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the probability of drawing two blue balls without replacement, we start by calculating the probability of drawing a blue ball on the first draw. Initially, there are 4 blue balls out of a total of 9 balls (2 red + 3 green + 4 blue), giving us a probability of \( \frac{4}{9} \) to draw a blue ball on the first attempt.

Once a blue ball has been drawn, there are now 8 balls left in the hat (since one blue ball has been removed), with 3 blue balls remaining out of these 8. Therefore, the probability of drawing another blue ball on the second attempt is \( \frac{3}{8} \).

To find the overall probability of drawing two blue balls consecutively, we multiply the probability of the first draw (\( \frac{4}{9} \)) by the probability of the second draw (\( \frac{3}{8} \)). This multiplication gives us \( \frac{4}{9} \times \frac{3}{8} = \frac{1}{6} \), which represents the probability of drawing two blue balls consecutively without replacement from the hat containing 2 red, 3 green, and 4 blue balls.

User SemMike
by
8.1k points
1 vote

Step-by-step explanation:

we are given 2 red balls, 3 green balls and 4 blue balls for a total of 9 balls in the hat. we are to take two balls and find the probability that both are blue.

the first probability would be


(4)/(9)

as probability is equal to (number of favorable outcomes) / number of total outcomes). so we have 9 total outcomes and 4 favorable ones (4 balls we want)

next, we have remaining 2 red balls, 3 green balls, 3 blue balls and 8 total balls. again, the second probability is


(3)/(8)

we have 8 total outcomes and 3 favorable ones (3 blue balls we want).

thus, their product is our total probability.


(4)/(9) * (3)/(8) \\ = (12)/(72) \\ = (1)/(6)

thus, our probability is 1/6.

User Michel Samia
by
8.3k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories