Question

Which of the following best describes why the Fairness Doctrine (with the exception of the "political editorial" and "personal attack" rules) did not control cable television?

Cable television was entirely outside the control of the FCC because, in theory, there was no limit to the number of people who could participate in the industry. The FCC existed only to control the business side of the communication industry, rather than the actual content itself.
The FCC had already repealed the Fairness Doctrine the 1960s due to several court cases brought about in light of the coverage of the Vietnam War.
The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct answer is:

The original intent of the Fairness Doctrine didn't apply to cable because, unlike with broadcast, there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be purchased. As cable became popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed.

The Fairness Doctrine was a policy of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) in the United States that required broadcasters to present contrasting viewpoints on controversial issues of public importance. However, the doctrine primarily applied to broadcast television and radio, which operated under limited licenses granted by the government. Cable television, on the other hand, did not face the same limitations as broadcast, as there was no limit to the number of licenses that could be obtained by cable operators. Therefore, the original intent of the Fairness Doctrine did not directly apply to cable television, and as cable became more popular, parts of the doctrine were repealed and did not extend to cable.