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Let f(x)=2−∣2x−1∣. Show that there is no value of c such that f(3)−f(0)=f′(c)(3−0). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

User Robertp
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Final answer:

To show that there is no value of c such that f(3) - f(0) = f'(c)(3-0), we need to analyze the equation and properties of the functions involved, such as the absolute value function and its derivative. Understanding these properties helps us conclude that there is no value of c that satisfies the equation. This conclusion does not contradict the Mean Value Theorem.

Step-by-step explanation:

To show that there is no value of c such that f(3) - f(0) = f'(c)(3-0), we need to examine the equation and analyze the functions involved. On the left side of the equation, f(3) - f(0), we can substitute the values of f(x) for x=3 and x=0, and calculate the result. On the right side of the equation, f'(c)(3-0), we have the derivative of f(x) multiplied by the difference in x values. Since f'(x) is the derivative of f(x), we need to calculate the derivative of f(x). By understanding the properties of the absolute value function and evaluating the derivative, we can conclude that there is no value of c that satisfies the equation. This does not contradict the Mean Value Theorem because the theorem states that there is at least one value c in the interval [a, b] where the derivative is equal to the average rate of change of the function on that interval, but it does not guarantee that every value of c will satisfy the equation in question.

User Aleena
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