Thomas Paine calls the actions of the British government impious. Why does he use this term to describe the claim of the British government?
A:He is using it to contrast the beliefs of the British government to those of the American people
B:He is using it to compare the beliefs of the British government to those of the American people.
C:He is using it as an allusion to the American people′s embracing of Enlightenment ideals over Biblical ideals.
D:He is using it to acknowledge the irony of the British government′s actions verses their core values (beliefs).