92.0k views
3 votes
40. A recipe calls for 2- cups of fava beans. You have 1 a 1-pint can of fava beans and cup of cooked 2 fava beans. Do you have enough fava beans for the recipe? Explain your answer.​

2 Answers

1 vote

Answer:

No

Explanation:

To answer this question, you need to convert the units of measurement to the same one and then compare the amounts. Here are the steps:

  • Convert 1 pint to cups by multiplying by 2. This gives you 2 cups of fava beans in the can.
  • Add 2 cups and cup of cooked fava beans. This gives you a total of 2 cups of fava beans.
  • Compare 2 cups with 2- cups. You can see that 2 cups is less than 2- cups by half a cup.

Therefore, you do not have enough fava beans for the recipe. You need half a cup more of fava beans to make the recipe.

Hope this helps :)

User Formica
by
7.0k points
5 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

yes because you have cup of cooked 2 fava beans and You have 1 a 1-pint can of fava beans

User Martin Ocando
by
7.2k points