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Was there universal enfranchisement in the 1840s? Why or why not?

User WaeCo
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1 Answer

5 votes

Answer: No

Explanation: I think not because before, many civilians (mostly woman) were treated with not with enfranchisment, but with ungratefulness. Many people at least got to vote when it was 1930-1950

Hope you get it right srry if not

User Hank
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