93.3k views
0 votes
Was there universal enfranchisement in the 1840s? Why or why not?

User WaeCo
by
7.3k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer: No

Explanation: I think not because before, many civilians (mostly woman) were treated with not with enfranchisment, but with ungratefulness. Many people at least got to vote when it was 1930-1950

Hope you get it right srry if not

User Hank
by
6.8k points