Question

Given that the antiderivative of

Answer 1

`\int^(1)_(-1) (1)/(x^2+1) \text{ } dx=[\arctan x]^(1)_(-1)=\arctan(1)-\arctan(-1)=(\pi)/(4)-\left(-(\pi)/(4) \right)=\boxed{(\pi)/(2)}`