177k views
3 votes
three softball players discussed their batting averages after a game. probability player 1 six tenths player 2 five ninths player 3 four sevenths compare the probabilities and interpret the likelihood. which statement is true? player 1 is more likely to hit the ball than player 2 because p(player 1) > p(player 2) player 2 is more likely to hit the ball than player 1 because p(player 2) > p(player 1) player 3 is more likely to hit the ball than player 1 because p(player 3) > p(player 1) player 2 is more likely to hit the ball than player 3 because p(player 2) > p(player 3) question 2(multiple choice worth 2 points) (likelihood mc) the dog shelter has labradors, terriers, and golden retrievers available for adoption. if p(terriers)

1 Answer

0 votes

Final answer:

To determine which softball player is most likely to get a hit, their batting averages must be compared, revealing Player 1 has the highest probability. Additionally, it is incorrect to add probabilities of independent events to exceed 100 percent, and by definition a home run is a successful hit.

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that Player 1 gets a hit is six tenths (0.6), Player 2's is five ninths (approximately 0.555), and Player 3's is four sevenths (approximately 0.571). To compare these, you must convert them to decimals or fractions that have a common denominator. Doing so reveals that Player 1 has the highest probability of getting a hit. Therefore, Player 1 is more likely to hit the ball than Player 2 because p(Player 1) > p(Player 2). Additionally, since there's no mention of the probability of Player 3 being greater than Player 1, the choice stating Player 3 is more likely to hit the ball than Player 1 cannot be verified.

Regarding the statements about probability, it is incorrect to add probabilities directly when considering independent events happening over two days, such as the chance of rain. The correct approach would involve other probability rules and, importantly, the total probability cannot exceed 100 percent. As for a home run being a successful hit, by definition every home run is indeed a successful hit so the number of successful hits must be greater than or equal to the number of home runs.

User Aboss
by
7.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.